I feel that people in a position of public authority; Police, Judges, Elected Political figureheads ect... should be exempt from any statute of limitations, IF the crimes they commit were committed while in that position of authority.
I feel this way because these people are the guiding force behind teaching and enforcing the law, but often get away with crimes committed because a lot of people are scared of going up against someone in a position of power, scared of going up against the government; and often times don't report the crimes until the person is no longer in that position of power, or out of fear wait until they are out of the situation and statute of limitations has run out.
This questions comes up in my mind after seeing the video of the Texas family court judge lashing his daughter, repeatedly and with great force; knowing that the statute of limitations has run out and the allegations of abuse can't be investigated by the courts. I personally believe the video to be a real depiction of abuse, but that is not what I'm asking, I am simply asking if people in a position of public authority should be exempt from statutes of limitation, if the alleged crime was committed while they were in that position of authority.
What are your opinions?
I feel this way because these people are the guiding force behind teaching and enforcing the law, but often get away with crimes committed because a lot of people are scared of going up against someone in a position of power, scared of going up against the government; and often times don't report the crimes until the person is no longer in that position of power, or out of fear wait until they are out of the situation and statute of limitations has run out.
This questions comes up in my mind after seeing the video of the Texas family court judge lashing his daughter, repeatedly and with great force; knowing that the statute of limitations has run out and the allegations of abuse can't be investigated by the courts. I personally believe the video to be a real depiction of abuse, but that is not what I'm asking, I am simply asking if people in a position of public authority should be exempt from statutes of limitation, if the alleged crime was committed while they were in that position of authority.
What are your opinions?